Search and find articles and topics quickly and accurately!  See different advanced ways to search for articles on this site.

Further Topic Research:
Syntax help

Do chapter Psalm 110 and Matthew 22:41-46 ("The LORD said to my Lord") prove that Jesus is the Creator of the Universe?

Let us look at chapter Psalm 110 and Matthew 22:41-46 from the KJV Bible:

Psalm 110
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
2  The LORD shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies.
3  Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power, in the beauties of holiness from the womb of the morning: thou hast the dew of thy youth.
4  The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.
5  The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath.
6  He shall judge among the heathen, he shall fill the places with the dead bodies; he shall wound the heads over many countries.
7  He shall drink of the brook in the way: therefore shall he lift up the head.


Matthew 22
41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.


Few points about the verses above, with two possibilities:

First Possibility:

1-  The whole theory about Jesus being the spiritual Sir or "Lord" for David is a man-made fabrication inserted into the Bible -- First in the Psalm and then into the New Testament.

2- The reason why it could be a fabrication is because in the entire Old Testament, this idea of GOD Almighty having a "Lord" under Him and speaking to him only exists in the late chapters of the book of Psalm.  The entire book, however, is very doubtful and most of it is considered unauthentic.  Let us look at what the theologians and historians of the NIV Bible said about the book of Psalm:

"Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided.  The notations themselves are ambiguous since the Hebrew phraseology used, meaning in general "belonging to", an also be taken in the sense of "concerning" or "for the use of" or "dedicated to".   The name may refer to the title of a collection of Psalms that had been gathered under a certain name.  (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"

"The Psalms consist of one hundred fifty poems of Israel written at different times by different authors, though mainly by David, around 1000 B.C.
..........
Because of the vast range of human feelings expressed in the Psalms, this book remains one of the best loved and most used books of the Bible. 
(From the King James Version Bible Commentary, page 801)"

(www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm)

And in regards to Psalm 110:

"The Oracles concerning the Messianic King Priest.  This Psalm (specifically its two brief oracles, vv.14) is frequently referred to in the NT testimony to Christ.   Like Ps2, it has the marks of a coronation psalm, composed for use at the enthronement of a new Davidic king.  Before the Christian era Jews already viewed it as Messianic.  Because of the manner in which it has been interpreted in the NT -- especially by Jesus (see Mt 22:43-45; Mk 12:36-37; Lk 20:42-44), but also  by Peter (see Ac 2:34-36) and the authors of Hebrews (see especially Heb 1:13; 5:6-10; 7:11-28) -- Christians have generally held that this is the most directly "prophetic" of all the psalms.  If so, David, speaking prophetically (see 2Sa 23:2), composed a coronation of psalm for his great future Son, of whom the prophets did not speak until later.  It may be, however, that David composed the psalm for the coronation of his son Solomon, that he called him "my lord" (v.1) in view of his new status, which placed him above the aged David, and that in so doing he spoke a word that had far larger meaning than he knew."

The bibliography of the NIV Bible is located at: www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm.

We also see here that no one is certain about what Psalm 110 really meant, and who it was written for.  Some might say it was an inspiration by GOD Almighty to king David, but no one even knows if king David himself wrote the psalm.

3- If Psalm 110 was indeed fabricated and inserted by men into the Bible, then this means that all of its references in the New Testament are also fabricated and inserted by the early Church or men, because non of the New Testament's books/gospels (except for the books of Paul) were written by their original authors.  That's why you see throughout the entire Bible narrations such as "And Moses said to his people..." instead of "And I (Moses) said....", and "Jesus said to Matthew...." instead of "And I (Jesus) said to Matthew", or "And Jesus said to me (Matthew)....".  There are existing verses in the Bible today that are reported to be extremely doubtful and unreliable by famous Christian theologians.   Please visit: The original authors of most of the books and gospels of the Bible are unknown.

 

Second Possibility:

1-  King David did write the psalm about the coming Messiah and not about King Solomon; his son.  In this case, this still would not prove anything about Jesus being the Creator of the Universe. 

2-  Jesus or the Messiah being king David's Sir or Lord doesn't automatically make Jesus GOD Almighty.  The Messiah is the last Biblical and earthly leader for the Jews on earth.  It would make perfect sense for the Messiah to be called "The Lord".  We today call drug dealers "Lords", as in "Drug Lord".  I as a Muslim have absolutely no problem in calling Jesus "The Lord", but only in the non-trinitarian sense -- that he is not GOD Almighty.

3-  And about Jesus or the Messiah crushing his enemies under his feet, it is not referring to modern Muslims as Christians often think.  It is referring to the Jews and the pagan Romans who crucified him and were his bitter enemy.   They will be crushed under his foot in the End.

4-  Jesus never liked the Jews, and neither did Moses.   The evil doers from the modern Jews today are going to get crushed by GOD Almighty.   When Jesus peace be upon him returns to earth to fight the devil and his army, most of the Jews (except for few of them) will be among those evil doers.

5-  Even in the Bible, GOD Almighty said that He will take His earthly kingdom from the Jews and give it to another nation, i.e., the Muslims.   Please visit: GOD in the Bible will take His Kingdom from the Jews and give it to another Nation.

Also please visit: Prophet Muhammad was foretold by the name in the Bible, in the book of Isaiah and the gospel of John.

What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?

 

 

 

 

 

Back to Answering Trinity.

Islam and the Noble Quran - Questions and Answers.

What is the place of Jesus, Jews and Christians in Islam?

Contradictions and History of Corruption in the Bible.

Prophet Muhammad was foretold by the name in the Bible, in the book of Isaiah and the gospel of John.

What parts of the Bible do Muslims believe are closest to the Truth? and Why?


Send your comments.

Back to Main Page.