Note: The following is written in the language that is intended as an invitation (Daw'ah) to Christians, from their biblical perspective.
Question No.1
Jesus said: "I and the Father are one" (Jn.10:30), therefore, is not Jesus the same, or, "co-equal" in status with his Father?Answer No.1
In Greek, `heis' means `one' numerically (masc.)`hen' means `one' in unity or essence (neut.)
Here the word used by John is `hen' and not `heis'. The marginal notes in New American Standard Bible (NASB) reads; one - (Lit.neuter) a unity, or, one essence.If one wishes to argue that the word `hen' supports their claim for Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father, please invite his/her attention to the following verse:
Jesus said: "And the glory which Thou hast given me, I have given
to them (disciples); that they may be one, just as we are one." (John 17:22).If he/she was to consider/regard/believe the Father and Jesus Christ to be "one" meaning "co-equal" in status on the basis of John 10:30, then that person should also be prepared to consider/regard/believe "them" - the disciples of Jesus, to be "co-equal" in status with the Father and Jesus ("just as we are one") in John 17:22. I have yet to find a person that would be prepared to make the disciples (students) "co-equal" in status with the Father or Jesus.
The unity and accord was of the authorized divine message that originated from the Father, received by Jesus and finally passed on to the disciples. Jesus admitted having accomplished the work which the Father had given him to do. (Jn.17:4)
Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said: "I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I." (Jn.14:28). This verse unequivocally refutes the claim by any one for Jesus being "co-equal" in status with his Father.
Question No.2
Jesus said: "I am the way, ...no one comes to the Father, but through me." (Jn.14:6), therefore, is not the Salvation through Jesus, ALONE?Answer No.2
Before Jesus spoke these words, he said; "In my Father's house are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so, I would have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place) for you." (John 14:2). The above explicit statement confirms that Jesus was going to prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the mansions in "my Father's house". Obviously, the prophets that came before him and the one to come after, were to prepare the other mansions for their respective followers. The prophet that came after Jesus had evidently shown the current "way" to a modern mansion in the kingdom of heaven.Besides; the verse clearly states; Jesus was the "WAY" to a mansion. It is a folly to believe that Jesus (or any prophet) was the "DESTINATION".
One who crosses over the "way" will reach the mansion. Anyone that stops on the "way" and believes the "way" to be the end of his/her journey, will be out in the open without any shelter and a roof.Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said; "Not every one that says to me; `Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of my Father, who is in heaven." (Mt.7:21).
Question No.3
Jesus said: "He who has seen me has seen the Father" (Jn.14:9), does this not prove that Jesus Christ and his Father were one and the same?Answer No.3
One day to prove a point and settle an argument, Jesus picked up a child and said to his disciples; "Whoever receives this child in my name receives me; and whoever receives me receives Him who sent me;" (Luke 9:48).Jesus said; "He who believes in me does not believe in me, but in Him who sent me." (John 12:44)
"He who hates me hates my Father also. ...but now they have both seen and hated me and my Father as well." (John 15:23-24)
"And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent." (John 17:3).
The call of sincerity demands that if believing in the Truth is the honest intention then one could only pass an ethical judgement after reflecting upon all the relevant texts.
John 17:3 (quoted above), if read with the following verse clears the air.
Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said; "Truly, truly, I say to you, a slave is not greater than his master; neither one who is sent greater than the one who sent him." (John 13:16).During his ministry, Jesus repeatedly said he was sent by his Father.
Question No.4
The Bible; "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten son, that whoever believes in him should not perish, but have eternal life." (John 3:16); should you not believe in Jesus to have eternal life?Answer No.4
Of course, we believe in Jesus for what he was and we do not believe in what he was not. We Muslims believe Jesus was a Messiah;"Spirit from God"; "Word of God"; the righteous Prophet as well as Messenger of God and the son of Virgin Mary. But, we do not believe Jesus was "the begotten son of God." The truth of the matter is apostle John never ever wrote; Jesus was "the begotten" son of God.
Please obtain a copy of the `Gideon Bible' from a Hotel or Motel near you. It is distributed free since 1899, all over the world, by The Gideon Society. In the beginning of this famous Bible, John 3:16 is translated in 26 popular world languages. You may be amazed to discover that in the English translation, the editors have used the traditionally accepted term "His only begotten son." Whereas, in several other languages the editors have used the term "His unique son" or "His one of a kind son."
In 1992, when I discovered this textual variations, I wrote letters to various universities in North America requesting them to confirm the original Greek term used by John. Below is a copy of the response received from The George Washington University:- John 3:16 and John 1:18 each have the word `monogenes' in Greek. This word ordinarily means "of a single kind". As a result, "unique" is a good translation. The reason you sometimes find a translation that renders the word as "only begotten" has to do with an ancient heresy within the church. In response to the Arian claim that Jesus was made but not begotten, Jerome (4th century) translated the Greek term `monogenes' into Latin as `unigenitus' ("only begotten").
Paul B. Duff, 22 April, 1992.
Professor Duff's response was based upon `Anchor Bible', volume 29, page 13-14. The Greek term for "begotten" is `gennao' as found in Mt.1:2, which John did not use.
Hot Tip (precise and pertinent)
Jesus said to Mary; "...go to my brethren, and say to them, I ascend to my Father and your Father..." (John 20:17). This verse demonstrates that the usage of term `Father' was purely metaphorical. As for Jesus being a "unique son", he, unlike us, was created without a physical Father.
Question No.5
Jesus said: "Truly, truly. I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." (John 3:3); I am a "born again" Christian, are you a "born again" Muslim?Answer No.5
The truth of the matter is apostle John did not use the phrase "born again". The Greek text reveals, the phrase used by John is "born from above". The Greek word used by John is `anothen' (`ano' + `then'). `ano' means `above' and the suffix `then' denotes `from'.Hence, what Jesus said was "unless one is born from above, he cannot see the kingdom of God." And, that sounds logical. Since none of the living creature is "born from above", no one can see the kingdom heaven during his life time. The concept of being "born again" to see the kingdom of heaven is an innovation to instill the concept of Baptism.
The same word `anothen' appears in the same Gospel and in the same chapter in verse 31. Here the editors have translated the word as "from above" and not "again".
To enter the Kingdom of Heaven one has to keep the Commandments. God's distinguished Command known as the `Covenant of Circumcision' (physically, "in the flesh of your foreskin") was an everlasting Covenant (Compact,Treaty) between God and man. See Genesis 17:10-14.Can an everlasting Treaty be abrogated or revoked unilaterally? Did Jesus abrogate it? No. Jesus was circumcised in the flesh (Luke 2:21). We, Muslim males, are circumcised. Are the male Christians circumcised in the "flesh of their foreskins"?
If not, please read the following verse:-
Hot Tip
Jesus said; "Whoever then annuls (discards) one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven." (Matt. 5:19).
Question No.6
Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19); does this not prove that the `Doctrine of Trinity' and its present day formula was communicated and promulgated by Jesus Christ himself?Answer No.6
With all due respect, we tend to disagree in view of the followingcompelling evidences:-
Hot Tip
"And Peter said to them, `Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'" (Acts 2:38). It is most unlikely that apostle Peter would have disobeyed the specific command of Jesus Christ for baptising in the three names and baptized them in the name of Jesus Christ, alone.
Question No.7
Apostle John in his first Epistle, chapter 5 and verse 7 wrote:"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one."; is this not a fair testimony to acknowledge the `Doctrine of Trinity'?
Answer No.7
Hot Tip
Notwithstanding the above rejections, the verse that follows the quoted text reads in KJV; "And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these three agree in one." (1John5:8). Are these three witnesses "co-equal"? Can blood be substituted with water? Can water be regarded as the same in any respect with the Spirit? Just as the spirit, the blood and the water are three separate entities, so are the first three witnesses, namely; the Father, the Son (Word, Logos) and the Holy Spirit (Ghost).
Question No.8
Jesus said:"He who believes in the son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him." (John 3:36); are you not under the wrath of God for not being a follower of Christ - a Christian, by belief?Answer No.8
It is an interesting question. In fact, we Muslims should be asking the question to you the followers of Christ. Do the vast majority of Christians truthfully believe Christ for what he said he was, and, truly understand his commands and obey them?We believe, most of the followers who claim to be Christians do not even understand the implications of calling their Leader or Lord;
"Christ". (The readers will understand what I mean by the last sentence, once they go through the rest of the text).
Here is the answer to your question. The above verse has two parts. `Belief' and `Obedience'. On the subject of Belief in Christ, Jesus asked his disciples;
"But who do you say that I am? And Peter answered and said, "The Christ of God." (Luke 9:20). Peter did not say God or a god. We Muslims truly believe Jesus was "The Christ (al-Masih) of God".
The expression "The Christ of God" literally means; "The one that was anointed by God himself". Please go back in time and think.
God performed the ceremony of anointing (physically or spiritually) and for that reason, Jesus became "The Christ of God". Now may I please ask you a simple question. Who is greater and exalted; the one who anointed, or, the one who got anointed? Since God anointed Jesus, God is the greater and exalted between the two, which we Muslims, do truly believe. But surprisingly, the followers who say Jesus is "Christ", don't.
Hot Tip
"...Thy holy Servant Jesus, whom Thou didst anoint,..."(Acts 4:27 - New American Standard Bible).
This leaves no room for doubt that Jesus was a `Servant of God'.Besides, there are other verses which declare Jesus; God's Servant.
Now let us go to the second part of the quoted verse; "obeying the Christ". Please read the following verse and ask yourself a question; have I obeyed?
"Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears my word, and believes Him who sent me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgement, but has passed out of death into life." John 5:24 Have I believed and placed my trust basically, fundamentally and predominately in Him or in Jesus?
Hot Tip
Jesus said; "But I do not seek my glory; there is One who seeks and judges." John 8:51. Who is this "One", who is not Jesus? Have you basically, essentially and fundamentally glorified the "One" or Jesus?Please remember, the "One" will be the Judge on the Day of Judgement and not Jesus. If you disbelieve or disobey the above word of Jesus please read the verse quoted by you and then think about the "wrath of God".
Question No.9
In the Book of Genesis 1:26, we read; "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness..."; does not the use of terms "us" and "our" prove that the God which created man was not a singular entity, furthermore, does it not support the Johnannine concept (John 1:3); all things came into being through Jesus?Answer No.9
1. Below is an extract from a commentary for the above verse, written by the editors of King James Version (The Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible, 6th edition):2. The response to your question, as well as, to the commentators remark; "One cannot be certain", lies not very far, but in the next verse (Genesis 1:27), which reads; "And God created man in His own image,..." This statement tells us that the actual act of creation when performed, was performed by "Him" and in "His" image and not by "Us" in "Our" image.
- "The Hebrew word for God is `Elohim' (430), a plural noun. In Genesis 1:1, it is used in grammatical agreement with a singular verb `bara' (1254), created. When plural pronouns are used, "Let us make man in our image after our likeness," does it denote a plural of number or the concept of excellence or majesty which may be indicated in such a way in Hebrew? Could God be speaking to angels, the earth, or nature thus denoting Himself in relation to one of these? Or is this a germinal hint of a distinction in the divine personality? One cannot be certain."
- Having written "One cannot be certain", the editors try to advocate the theory of Jesus, as the "essential (internal) unity of Godhead."
Hot Tip
As a closing conclusive argument, here is a statement of truth from Jesus himself; "And he (Jesus) answered and said unto them, `Have you not read, that He which made them at the beginning made them male and female." (Matthew 19:4). This statement by Jesus also negates the so called Johnannine concept put forward by you (NOT by apostle John); "all things came into being through Jesus."
Question No.10
In the Gospel of John, we find that eight days after his resurrection, Jesus stood before his disciples and asked the unbelieving Thomas to feel his hands and side, to verify the nail marks and spear scar. After seeing the hands and the side, Thomas said to Jesus; "My Lord and my God." If Jesus was not God, he would have certainly reprimanded Thomas, but he did no such thing, does this not prove, `Jesus was God'?Answer No.10
Please allow me quote from the `New American Standard Bible' the entire text as it appears in Ch.20:27-28 from John's Gospel:"Then he (Jesus) said to Thomas, "Reach here your finger, and
see my hands, and reach here your hand, and put it into my side; and be not unbelieving, but believing." Thomas answered and said to him, "My Lord and my God!"Hot Tip
Apostle John writes, immediately after the discourse between Jesus and Thomas; "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ..." If John had recognized the answer by Thomas to be a testimony for the `Deity of Jesus' and the observed silence by Jesus to be his acquiesce to such a testimony, then John would have written "Jesus is the God" and not "Jesus is the Christ..."
Question No.11
Apostle Matthew records that Jesus was worshipped by Magi that came from the East (2:11); by the boat people (14:33); by Mary Magdalene and the other Mary (28:9); and also by his disciples on a mountain in Galilee (28:17). Since worshipping any one other than God is a fundamental sin, why did not Jesus stop these people from worshipping him, unless he was God himself?Answer No.11
1. For your information, none of the above worshipped Jesus. Nor, did apostle Matthew record it so. According to the lexical aids to the Bible, the proper Greek word for `worship' is `sebomai' (4576) from the root `seb'. That word `sebomai' is used by apostle Matthew in 15:9 where Jesus said; "But in vain do they worship me,..."2. To prove the point further, in `New English Bible' the translations of the quoted verses read; `bowed to the ground' in (2:11); `fell at his feet' in (14:33); `falling prostrate before him' in (28:9), and `fell prostrate before him' in (28:17).
- The Greek word used by the apostle in the above quotes is `prosekunesan' and not `sebomai'. `Prosekunesan' comes from `proskuneo' (4352), which literally means bow, crouch, crawl, kneel or prostrate. If the apostle wanted to convey; `Jesus was worshipped', he would have used the word `sebomai' which he did not.
3. The question of Jesus stopping them for worshipping, therefore does not arise, because they simply bowed or prostrated to him.
Hot Tip
Apostle Mark records in 10:17-18; "And as he (Jesus) was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to him and knelt before him and began asking him, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit the eternal life?" And Jesus said to him, "Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone." It sounds inharmonious and inconsistent that a person who even refuses to be called "good" could have allowed any one to worship him.Since, no one is good except "God alone", should not Christians be worshipping directly to that solitary God to whom Jesus himself prayed more than a dozen times, according to the Gospels?
Question No.12
When prophet Moses asked God; What was His name? What shall he say to his people? From behind the Burning Bush God replied; "I AM THAT I AM." God also asked Moses to say to the sons of Israel: "I AM hath sent me unto you." Exodus 3:14.When confronted by Jews; "Jesus said unto them, `Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." (John 8:58 K.J.V.). Jesus also said; "I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins. (John 8:24, K.J.V.). Does that not prove, Jesus existed before his birth; he was the One who spoke to Moses from behind the Burning Bush; and if you do not believe that, you will die in your sins?
Answer No.12
Your question is based upon a simple conjecture. Even the editors of K.J.V. insinuate that fact. Under the foot note of Exodus 3:14 the editors write; "Jesus probably alluded to this name of God in John 8:58, `Before Abraham was, I AM." The use of phrase "probably alluded" clearly indicates it is not an established reality. My dear friend, a surmise can never take place of (replace) an acknowledged statement. This is what Jesus said; "...I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things." (John 8:28). God of Moses that claimed "I AM THAT I AM" had no instructor or tutor, and, needed no tutoring. If God had an instructor or an educator, then what would you call that entity? God's mentor or boss??As for the existence of Jesus before his birth, please remember Jesus was anointed by God before he was born. Hence, he was called Christ (Messiah). Besides Jesus, there were others who were either anointed, consecrated or made holy, before their births. (see Ps. 89:20, Is. 45:1, 61:1; 1 Sam. 24:6). God did take a solemn covenant from Novah, Abraham, Moses, Jesus - son of Mary, and Muhammad before they were sent, reveals the Qur'an. Bible records, God came to prophet Jeremiah and said to him;
"Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I have appointed you a prophet to the nations." Jeremiah 1:5.
I have question for you. How would you explain this ensuing statement? Jesus said to Jews; "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day, and he saw it, and was glad." (John 8:56)
Hot Tip
When Jews were doubtful about the identity of a particular blind beggar who had been healed by Jesus, the blind beggar - who was no more blind, kept saying; "I am he" (John 9:9, K.J.V.). Does that make the blind beggar, God! Further more, the beggar when questioned about Jesus who had healed him, replied to Jews; "And he said, "He is a prophet." (John 9:17).
Question No.13
Apostle Mark records in 16:19; "...He (Jesus) was received up into heaven, and sat down at the right hand of God." The question is, who can have such an unparalleled privilege and distinction, besides his own begotten Son? Is there anyone else who has been elevated to that station, in any other scripture?Answer No.13
Hot Tip
The Book of Revelation (symbolic and obscure writings of uncertain authorship), records in 3:21 that Jesus sat down with his Father on his Father's throne. You write, based upon injected verse; Jesus sat down at the right hand side of God. Which one do you believe?
Question No.14
In the Epistle of Paul to Romans, it reads; "that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you shall be saved; for with the heart man believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation." (Roman 10:9-10, NASB). The salvation is assured to us Christians who confess with our mouth and heart; Jesus Christ to be our Lord. What do Muslims have for their salvation?Answer No.14
This is a preferred verse with the evangelic missionaries. It is one of the bases of the Christianity propagated by Paul and needs to be addressed in detail and from various perspectives. Note: The editors of the New Testament have created confusion by translating the Greek word `Theos' (meaning, God) as "Lord". And, the Greek word `Kurios' (meaning, Master, Owner, Head of a house) as "Lord", as well. For those who consider Jesus to be God, it may not make any difference, but for the rest it does. I hope you will henceforth recognize "the dead" and "the alive" to be two distinct entities and "un-equal", whenever you think of the "Risen Jesus".Hot Tip
"And there is no other God besides Me, A righteous God and a Saviour; There is none except Me. `Turn to Me, and be saved, all the ends of the earth; For I am God, and there is no other." Isaiah 45:21-22. (please also read Hosea 13:4). When God said; "all the ends of the earth" He righteously meant it to be so. The era of "cross" should make no difference.BTW, if you truly accept the end part of the quoted Isaiah, you have accepted the first half of the `Confession of Islamic Faith' called "Shahadah".
Question No.15
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a very valid and legitimate three part question:-(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the Word,and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning with God.All things came into being through him; and apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being. (John 1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among us???
Verse upholding ©; And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us,and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.15
This three part question is so often repeated, collectively or individually, that I will try to answer them (God-willing), from various perspectives. For an uncomplicated comprehension, I am going to separate the three part question into three separate questions. In this number fifteen, I will deal with part (a) above. Please look for No. 16 and 17 for answers to (b) and © above.Hot Tip
Paul wrote; "...if any man is preaching to you a Gospel contrary to which you received, let him be accursed (anathema)." Gal. 1:9.
Question No.16
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a veryvalid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the Word,and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning with God.All things came into being through him; and apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being. (John 1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among us???
Verse upholding ©; And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us,and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.16
Hot Tip
"It is I who made the earth, and created man upon it. I stretched out the heavens with My hands, And I ordained all their host." (Isaiah 45:12). Please also read Psalms 147-148, where the Psalmist bids Zion to "Praise your (their) God", who has done multitude of things and created; the heavens, the heights, His angels, His hosts, Sun, Moon, Stars and the waters that are above the heavens, by His own Command.
Question No.17
From the prologue of John's Gospel, I have a veryvalid and legitimate three part question:-
(a) Was not Jesus God from the beginning?
Verse upholding (a); In the beginning was the Word,and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1)
(b) Were not all things made through Jesus??
Verses upholding (b); He was in the beginning with God.All things came into being through him; and apart from him nothing came into being that has come into being. (John 1:2-3)
(c) Was not Jesus made flesh and dwelt among us???
Verse upholding ©; And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us,and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)
Answer No.17
Below is a response to part © above.Parts (a) and (b) have been replied under FAQ 15 and 16.
1. To comprehend what apostle John wrote in © above, one has to read what John wrote ten verses earlier, i.e. in John 1:4. According to the LITERAL translation, in that verse, John wrote; "In it was life; and the life was the light of men."
2. As demonstrated earlier the word "it" stands for "Logos" (the divine command that was in the beginning with the God). Consequently, "In it (in the God's command was life); and that life was the light (the guidance, enlightenment) for men."
3. I have rendered "light" as the guidance and enlightenment, because in 1:9 John wrote; "There was the true light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man".
4. Unfortunately, "And the light shines in the darkness; and the darkness did not comprehend it (him)." (John 1:5).
Note: In either case; the word "it" which stands for God's command, or "him" which stands for Jesus, makes sense.
5. Going back to © above; "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth." (John 1:14). What the apostle LITERALLY meant was;
"And the Logos (the God's command, which was from the beginning with God, wherein was the life) became flesh, and dwelt among us,..."
6. Briefly, the embodiment in flesh was of "Logos" - the God's command, and NOT of the God. The conception of Jesus within the womb of his mother, Virgin Mary, was in reality made possible by an act of God's command - the "Logos". Jesus was neither God nor the physical incarnation of God.
7. The entire text which reads; "and we be held his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father" is written within parentheses in the Kings James Version. Hence, it is considered as the editor's enhanced notes or addendum.
8. As for the true meaning of the original term used by John in his Gospel, for the mistranslated phrase "the only begotten", please see the earlier answers.
Hot Tip
To those who prefer to contend; they have no recourse but to admit that it was either at the *beginning* or after the act of *becoming* happened, "Jesus" who was "with" God or "became" flesh, had to be either an additional, other, different, distinct, or dissimilar entity than the God. Now, having no way to retreat, please read the following:"No one can serve two masters;..." Matthew 6:24
If you wish choose the ONE and the only Master, please read;"Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God,
be honour and glory forever and ever. Amen." 1 Timothy 1:17
Can any one deny; "Jesus" who dwelt among us, was "visible"!
Question No.18
While declaring Christ's superiority to the Angels, in the Epistle to the Hebrews, God said to Jesus:How can you deny these "Words of God"?
Answer No.18
- "The author of the Book of Hebrews is unknown. Martin Luther suggested that Apollos was the author...Tertullian said that Hebrews was a letter of Barnabas...Adolf Harnack and J. Rendel Harris speculated that it was written by Priscilla (or Prisca). William Ramsey suggested that it was done by Philip. However, the traditional position is that the Apostle Paul wrote Hebrews...Eusebius believed that Paul wrote it, but Origen was not positive of Pauline authorship."
- Were the prophecies of the Old Testament fulfilled by the history, or, the history was written to fulfil the prophecies? (May I add, specially when the authorship is questioned, not by the outsiders, but the insiders! KJV).
Hot Tip
Al-Hamdulillah (Praise be to "the God"), you yourself have indirectly admitted, by submitting the above three quotations that there is only ONE who is: Your quotes and my submissions:1. Thou art My Son, Today I have begotten Thee.
Yesterday, the Son did not exist. "The God" alone is "The Eternal".2. Let all the Angels worship you.
If you believe, since Angels worshipped Jesus, `Jesus is Worthy of Prayers' then in the Garden of Gethsemane, Jesus "fell on his face and prayed, saying, `My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me." (Matthew 26:39). Hence, the Heavenly Father - "The God" is "The Worthy of Prayers" from Jesus, Angels and every one.3. Sit on My right hand,....
Does not the above sentence clearly demonstrate (manifest) that "The God" who articulated or commanded the above, was sitting on the "Supreme Throne" and Jesus was standing and waiting to be told to sit down, next to him? "The God" is "THE SUPREME".Note: All the prophets, including Jesus used to "fall on their faces" like we Muslims do, while praying.
See; Abraham, Genesis 17:3; Job, Job 1:20; Moses and Aaron, Numbers 16:22; Jesus, Mt.26:39.
Question No.19
Below is a question from Brother Muhammad Ali Siddiqui <mas@lznhbu1.lincroftnj.attgis.com>:-Assalamu alaykum, Here's a question. According to following verse of Isaiah, Jesus was born and he was "everlasting father". How do u explain this? Wassalam
"Unto us a Child is born, unto us a son is given, and the government shall be upon His shoulders. And His name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Almighty God, the Everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace." Isaiah 9:6Answer No.19
Jesus was not born according to the above verse of Isaiah.This and several others verses from the Book of Isaiah have been *alluded* to Jesus Christ by the Christian clergy and theologians. Majority of these allusions do not have the authenticated supports.
In John's gospel there is a narration about the multitude challenging Jesus by saying; "We have heard out of the Law that the Christ is to remain forever; and how can you say, `The Son of Man must be lifted up'? Who is this Son of Man?" John 12:34.
The theologians imply that the multitude was alluding to the above quoted verse (Isaiah 9:6), while speaking of having heard from the Law. Jesus Christ used to call himself, "Son of Man" (See Matthew 16:13). Disciple Stephen before he was stoned to death called Jesus, the "Son of Man" (Acts 7:55-56). However, Jesus is not the only person in the Bible to be so called. God addressed Ezekiel as the "Son of Man" (Ezekiel 2:1).
Notwithstanding the authentication of the above allusion, here is an answer to your original question; how do you explain Jesus was "the everlasting father"?
In the Bible, the term "everlasting" or "forever" is often used as a figurative term and does not necessarily mean in its literal sense, e.g., It says; "and David My servant shall be their prince forever." Ezekiel 37:25.
The same goes for the use of the term "Father". It does not necessarily mean; "the Heavenly Father" (God), or the biological.
Joseph is called a father to Pharaoh. Genesis 45:8, Abraham is called the father of a multitude of nations. Gen. 17:5, and Job is called the father of the needy. Job 29:16. Again by theologians alluding to Psalms 110;
Jesus is a called Priest or a Father of the priesthood, forever.
Before some one reads the above quoted Isaiah 9:6 and wants to question; How do you explain the phrase;
"Almighty God", let me clear that issue in advance.
"Almighty God" is a deliberate mistranslation of the Hebrew phrase "El-Gibbor" used by Isaiah. The Hebrew phrase for "God Almighty" is "El-Shadday". In the famous Hebrew and Chaldee Dictionary by James Strong the word "gibbowr" or short "gibbor" (1368), is translated as; warrior, tyrant:-champion, chief, X excel, giant, man, mighty (man, one), strong (man), valiant man. The word "shadday" (7706), is translated as, the Almighty:-Almighty. If one was to read the verses preceeding the quoted Isaiah 9:6, the on going subject there is; "at the battle of Midian", and "the booted warrior in the battle tumult".
Hot Tip
It is very interesting to read and note;"And whoever shall speak a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever shall speak against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come." Matthew 12:32.
Now please read and also note this;
"But the Comforter (Greek, Paraclete), the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, *He* will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said to you. (John 14:26).
If one was to honestly look at the historical records of the Great Religious Teachers, and try to discover *He* "a male salvific figure"; that came after Jesus, taught "all things", spoke of Jesus and his teachings, he would but have to point his finger to the prophet of Islam. The Christian traditions have indeed "confused" this "male salvific figure" with "Spirit", in spite of the fact that the word "Spirit" (Greek, `pneu'ma'), is of a neutral gender and is *always* referred to by the pronoun "it". Below is a direct quote from the world famous `The Anchor Bible' published by Doubleday & Company, Inc, Garden City, N.Y. 1970.
"Christian tradition has identified this figure (Paraclete) as the Holy Spirit, but scholars like Spitta, Delafosse, Windisch, Sasse, Bultmann, and Betz have doubted whether this identification is true to the original picture and have suggested that the Paraclete was once an independent salvific figure, later confused with the Holy Spirit." (page 1135).
Al-Hamdulillah, what a mighty statement of truth.