8- Rebuttals:
The following interactions present detailed analysis on some of the main points of this article:
(a)- Detailed rebuttal on Isaiah 53:
The following is an interaction about Isaiah 53 between me and a person by the name of Nakdimon:
He wrote:
1 - Isaiah 53:3 says that "Jesus" is despised by all men. In Luke 10:1, Jesus has at least 70 followers, and in other verses we're told that he fed and healed thousands (John 6:9-11, Luke 17:11-19 and other verses).
First of all, Isaiah is describing the status of the servant in his suffering. In the case of Yeshua that would be during his trial and his death.
My response:
Right from the start you've presented your case with erroneous assumptions without proving them. Before I start thoroughly refuting your points, I must make this important point:
In the New Testament, Psalm 91 is directly linked to Jesus Christ, in the New Testament, by Jesus Christ himself, while Isaiah 53 isn't linked to Jesus by anyone. Psalm 91 said many Prophecies, and they are listed above in this article. Satan, in the New Testament, even tried to use Psalm 91 to tempt Jesus into testing GOD Almighty to try to kill himself by throwing himself off of the canyon or mountain to see if GOD Almighty will be True to His Word and Promise and send down the Angels to lift Jesus up from death and harm as precisely mentioned in Psalm 91. Psalm 91 further declares that Christ will call upon GOD Almighty for help to protect him from death, and GOD Almighty will honor him and protect him from death.
By the way, Psalm 91 says that GOD Almighty will not even let Jesus strike his foot against a rock from harm. This is a symbolic speech that means that GOD Almighty will not let Jesus get hurt at all. Satan tried to fool Jesus by trying to have Jesus test GOD Almighty or force GOD Almighty into executing this Promise by trying to jump off the mountain to see if GOD Almighty will truly send down the Angels to lift Jesus up or not.
Now certainly, the Prophecy wasn't speaking about Jesus jumping off of a mountain. It was again a symbolic speech that meant that GOD Almighty will protect Jesus from death all the way.
Was Psalm 91 for a limited time only?
Some argued that Psalm 91 could've been only till the time before crucifixion, and that after that, it no longer applies. This is false and is refuted in Psalm 91 itself once again, because Psalm 91 says clearly that the servant will call upon GOD Almighty in trouble, and GOD Almighty will save him from death! GOD Almighty will honor him and protect him, and will not allow for ANY HARM to come near him. The only time Jesus called upon GOD Almighty to save his life, in the New Testament, was during the time of crucifixion.
Again, Isaiah 53 is no where linked to Jesus Christ in the New Testament. It is Psalm 91 that is clearly linked. Not only that, but Isaiah 53 has deliberate mistranslations and misinterpretations in it that we will see below, insha'Allah (if Allah Almighty is Willing).
He wrote:
He carried the suffering alone, with no one to aid or assist him. Second, I’m looking at the Hebrew of Isaiah 53:3 and I see nothing about the servant being despised by “all” men. Can you tell me where the Hebrew word for “all” is in the text? Seeing you made the claim that Isaiah 53 is mistranslated, I take it your understanding of the text must be in accordance with what actually is written in the Hebrew text. As far as I’m concerned, the word “all” isn’t even in the text and therefore point 1 is moot!
My response:
The English translations say "all". And even if we don't put "all" in the translation, it will still mean that since "some" does not exist in the text. Now, "all" here would mean most or many. But yet, Jesus was very popular by many, and he supposedly performed his Miracles in front of thousands of eye witnesses, which would've exploded his popularity among the people in no time.
So in either case, you are refuted.
He wrote:
2 - In Isaiah 53:5 it says he was wounded for our transgressions. Now right away one might assume this is the death of Jesus. However it says he was WOUNDED not killed. But let us go with killed for your arguments sake. This is not what this verse is saying. It is saying that they made a mistake so he is paying for it. They plotted or accused against him. This is exactly what happened. And again, the verse says wounded, which further proves that Christ was never killed
And in typical Muslim fashion you read the verse and don’t bother to read on what is said about the same servant:
Verse 8 says he was “cut off from the land of the living”,
My response:
Again, as I mentioned above in the article, "wounded" here could easily mean felt hurt spiritually, and not necessarily got physically hurt. Also, Psalm 91 doesn't mean that not a scratch will be upon Jesus. GOD Almighty's Protection to Jesus from both harm and death could easily be referring to serious wounds and not minor ones. But in either way, "wounded" here could easily refer to a spiritual one, because Jesus was probably upset because his people were about to be doomed to Hell for Eternity for rejecting his Message.
Now as to him being cut off from the land of the living, here are what your NIV and YLT Bibles and many others say:
1- From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=NIV:
8 By oppression [a] and judgment he was taken away.
And who can speak of his descendants?
For he was cut off from the land of the living;
for the transgression of my people he was stricken. [b]
a. Isaiah 53:8 Or From arrest
b. Isaiah 53:8 Or away. / Yet who of his generation considered / that he was cut off from the land of the living / for the transgression of my people, / to whom the blow was due?
2- From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah%2053&version=YLT:
8By restraint and by judgment he hath been taken, And of his generation who doth meditate, That he hath been cut off from the land of the living? By the transgression of My people he is plagued,
It's talking about Jesus' imprisonment!
It seems quite clear to me that this quotation is referring to Jesus' arrest and him being imprisoned! He was taken away from the people and put into isolation. That's how I clearly see it. In fact, the NIV Bible in its (a) foot note above, explicitly says "From arrest". It is clearly and indisputably speaking about Jesus' arrest, which doesn't really prove anything.
He wrote:
Verse 9 speaks of his grave and his death
My response:
Verse 9 speaks about the servant being assigned a grave, which is true. Jesus today has a grave and it is empty. Nothing refutes Islam here. As to "his death" my detailed refutation to this lie is further down.
He wrote:
Verse 10 speaks about giving his soul as an asham (guilt offering)
My response:
You are sadly a victim of the false interpretations and lies that are given to you. Here is what the NIV Bible comments:
1- From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=NIV:
10 Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him and cause him to suffer,
and though the LORD makes [c] his life a guilt offering,
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,
and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand.
c. Isaiah 53:10 Hebrew though you make
The Hebrew doesn't say "the LORD makes". It says "you make"! It is talking about people and not GOD Almighty.
Furthermore, here is what the YLT Bible says:
2- From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah%2053&version=YLT:
10And Jehovah hath delighted to bruise him, He hath made him sick, If his soul doth make an offering for guilt, He seeth seed -- he prolongeth days, And the pleasure of Jehovah in his hand doth prosper.
Do you see any crucifixion in here? It's talking about Jesus getting bruised by his enemies (again minor injuries that are not fatal), and that it caused to get sick. And then it says that if his soul were to be a guilt offering, which proves that it wasn't make a guilt offering.
Your point is again soundly refuted!
He wrote:
Verse 12 says he bore his soul unto death
But none of this seems to face you, doesn’t it? And you don’t even realise that you have shot yourself in the foot. You applied this verse to Yeshua and said that this proves that he was never killed, but only wounded. Herewith you have undercut everything you have said in your article regarding Psalm 91. You cant have it both ways. Either Isaiah 53:5 is about Yeshua and he was wounded, according to your reading, or Psalm 91 is about Yeshua and he was NOT wounded, also according to your reading. So, what will it be? As far as I’m concerned point 2 is moot!
My response:
He poured his soul unto death means that he overpowered death! He killed death. He defeated death. Sure, he was saved and lifted by GOD Almighty from the cross. He was victorious over death.
1- From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=YLT
12Therefore I give a portion to him among the many, And with the mighty he apportioneth spoil, Because that he exposed to death his soul, And with transgressors he was numbered, And he the sin of many hath borne, And for transgressors he intercedeth.
Here we see that Jesus faced death. But he never died! Isaiah 53 doesn't claim it at all, and Psalm 91 clearly declares that Jesus will cry out to GOD Almighty to protect him from death, and GOD Almighty will save him and honor him!
He wrote:
3 - Isaiah 53:7 states that "he did not open his mouth". There are two possible interpretations and answers to this:
Jesus never literally spoke a single word during the crucifixion trial. This is obviously wrong because Jesus spoke during his trial with both Pontius Pilot and the Jews. And we all know Jesus' famous and final cry to GOD Almighty when he said: "Eloi Eloi lama sabachtani!", which translates: "My GOD my GOD, why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46) So wrong. He did open his mouth.
Jesus did not object to GOD Almighty's Will. This is also wrong, because again, Jesus cried during the crucifixion "My GOD my GOD why have you forsaken me?", and he also prayed ENDLESSLY to GOD Almighty on the night of the crucifixion to not get crucified! (Matthew 16:39, Matthew 26:36-44, Luke 6:12) He even bowed down his face to Allah Almighty in worship endless times begging Him for a change in Decision. So yes, Jesus did object.
How about a third: He never objected to his accusers. Which is the exact understanding that becomes obvious to anyone who has any regard for the context and even for the verse itself. The verse starts out “He was oppressed”. He was oppressed by whom? His accusers. It then goes on to say “like a lamb that is led to the slaughter”. He was led to his execution by whom? His accusers. He didn’t say a word of defence himself before them. Point 3 is also moot!
My response:
But Jesus in the New Testament did object to the crucifixion. He did beg GOD Almighty to save him, and according to Psalm 91, GOD Almighty did save him. But either way, your point here doesn't disprove anything.
As to him being led like a lamb to the slaughter, sure, they wanted to kill him through crucifixion, but he was never crucified nor killed:
"That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge; That they said (in boast): 'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of Allah.' But they killed him not, Nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not. Nay, Allah raised him up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise. And there is none of the people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him (Jesus) Before his death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them. (The Noble Quran, 4:156-159)"
Now compare the Noble Verses to Isaiah 52:13 "...he will be raised and lifted up....". Notice that Isaiah 52:13 did not say "....he will be RESURRECTED and lifted up...." Not even once, did the Old Testament predict for the foretold Servant to be raised to GOD Almighty after death. There absolutely no mention of any sort of resurrection in the Bible's Old Testament what so ever.
And again, Psalm 91 clearly says that GOD Almighty will protect him and save him from death, and He will honor him.
He wrote:
4 - Isaiah 53:9 says that he made his grave with the wicked and the rich. According to http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/53-9.htm:
in his death" is also a false translation to the Hebrew Mawth. At the worst, it should be translated as "in death", making the word a symbolic one as further confirmed in the Hebrew lexicon:
in his death
maveth (maw'-veth)
death (natural or violent) [notice not "his death". It only says "death"]; concretely, the dead, their place or state (hades); figuratively, pestilence, ruin -- (be) dead(-ly), death, die(-d)."
A lot of points here:
FIRST: you look at the definition of the word “mawet” and then highlight the “figurative” sense in your article. But you don’t even regard all the other definition that your source put for you to read.
My response:
This is because no where in the entire Old Testament does it say that the Messiah will actually die! All you have is figurative expressions about him:
1- Facing death, or getting exposed to death.
2- Having a grave assigned to him.
3- And now, "in death" or "in his death" doesn't at all mean that he will die. Here is what the NIV Bible says:
From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=NIV
9 He was assigned a grave with the wicked,
and with the rich in his death,
though he had done no violence,
nor was any deceit in his mouth.
10 Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him [1] and cause him to suffer,
and though the LORD makes [c] his life a guilt offering,
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,
and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand.
c. Isaiah 53:10 Hebrew though you make
[1]. This note is mine. In the Arabic it says: وَمَعَ ذَلِكَ فَقَدْ سُرَّ اللهُ أَنْ يَسْحَقَهُ بِالْحَزَنِ, which literally translates as: And despite this, it delighted Allah to crush him with (ample) grieve!
Here is how I read these verses:
- The servant was assigned a grave to die in despite the fact that he has done no violence.
- The servant will have ample grieve in him due to the doom of his people. Remember! Psalm 91:8 says that he will see the punishment of the wicked with his eyes!
- GOD Almighty will cause him to suffer (through fear and bad experience), but will not let him die because He, the Almighty, Will prolong his life!
Do you see any proof here that the servant will actually die??
Especially in light of Psalm 91?
He wrote:
SECOND: is there a particular reason why you have scratched “his” in the “in his death” phrase in your article?
My response:
I only quoted what the lexicon said as you also quoted me above. But in either case, I have proven that the "death" here is definitely symbolic.
He wrote:
THIRD: all the lexicon says about death being figuratively is that it can ALSO be understood to be figuratively. But its foremost meaning is literal death.
My response:
False! Death throughout the Bible is many times symbolic. It is so symbolic that you can't even know for sure, from your Bible, whether Hell is an actual Fire or a place of complete death and cease of existence. This confusion is caused primarily by the too much use of symbolic speeches for death, grave and other key words.
To the reader, please visit: Sheol in the Bible: Hell and Death.
Also, according to the Lexicon, maweth meant "high places" in other Biblical verses:
in his death-Hebrew, "deaths." Lowth translates, "His tomb"; bamoth, from a different root, meaning "high places," and so mounds for sepulture (Eze 43:7). But all the versions oppose this, and the Hebrew hardly admits it. Rather translate, "after His death" [Hengstenberg]; as we say, "at His death." The plural, "deaths," intensifies the force; as Adam by sin "dying died" (Ge 2:17, Margin); that is, incurred death, physical and spiritual. So Messiah, His substitute, endured death in both senses; spiritual, during His temporary abandonment by the Father; physical, when He gave up the ghost.
because-rather, as the sense demands (so in Job 16:17), "although He had done no," &c. [Hengstenberg], (1Pe 2:20-22; 1Jo 3:5).
violence-that is, wrong.
Notice that Adam did not literally die. The "death" here is symbolic.
Again, do you see any proof here that the servant will actually die??
Especially in light of Psalm 91?
Please visit:
Evidence from the Greek NT suggesting that "Jesus Barabbas" not "Jesus of Nazareth" is the one who got crucified!
Jesus Barabbas and Jesus the Nazorean.
The early Disciples' writings declare that Jesus never got crucified!
He wrote:
FOURTH: Since you insist that “mawet” has to be figuratively and cannot in any way shape or form be literally death, can you tell us what the Hebrew word for literal death is that Isaiah should have used to give us the impression that this is a physical death and not a mere figurative death?
My response:
I first of all never said that. But to answer your question, it would have to be the same word but with FAR MORE CLEARER TEXT to back it up! The delimma of your Bible is that it contains far too many symbolic terms and words that it is virtually impossible sometimes to know whether it is to be taken literal or symbolically.
Certainly, with all of the points that I mentioned above, I don't see any direct claim that the servant will actually die!
He wrote:
FIFTH: you then go to translations that aren’t translations at all. The NLT and the CEV are NOT translations, but paraphrases. You object to the word “mawet” being translated as “death”, yet you subsequently run to other translations that don’t even translate the word “mawet” at all!
SIXTH: Even the YLT translates it incorrectly, since the YLT has an improper understanding of the word at hand. The YLT reads the word “bemotaaw” to understood as “bamotaaw”. But this reading is untenable, since “bamot” (high places) are places where idol worship is being practiced. This is NOT what Isaiah is saying about the servant.
SEVENTH: The word “bemotaaw” DOES mean “in HIS deaths”. The suffix “-aaw” is third person singular in the masculine form denoting a plurality of possession.
Then you go on to say:
1. Jesus was never buried (Matthew 27:59-66, Matthew 28)! He was temporarily placed in a tomb and then his body disappeared after that. But he never ONCE was buried under ground as our dead get buried.
2. Jesus, who was never buried from the first place, was also NEVER BURIED with the wicked and the rich. His tomb was placed in an isolated area as recorded in the gospels.
The sheer ignorance you display is astounding. And I read someone praising you for your scholarship earlier in this thread. Burial in ancient days took place in tombs. There were two burials: stage one was that the body was placed in a tomb to decay so that only the bones were left and then stage two would follow, where the bones were collected out of the tomb and piled up in a small coffin and were buried. So, no, Yeshua was never buried as our dead get buried, because that was never the method that people got buried.
As for your second point, since the Hebrew in Isaiah 53 is very poetic, the words of Isaiah are open to interpretation. The words are just as probable to read, that he was buried between the wicked, referring to those surrounding graves with their dead. It can also be referring to his burial by Yosef of Arimathea and all those that were with him, since the servant is described as the Righteous One that suffers for and bares the iniquities of the unrighteous multitude. In addition, you don’t know that the grave was in an isolated area since the Gospels don’t give us that information. All the Gospels say is that the grave was new and unused. You are just making this up in order to be able to raise objections. And with that said, point 4 is moot!
My response:
Your points above are all refuted above, and you're only left with desperation and confusion. You're trying to force a certain meaning of a word upon a verse, and this meaning is not supported at all throughout the chapter! Not only that, but the word itself, muth or mawth, had been used throughout the Bible to mean different things!
In short, you have absolutely no proof whatsoever about the servant will actually die! On the contrary, we see that GOD Almighty will prolong (extend, make longer) his life!
Also, as I demonstrated amply and thoroughly above, both Psalm 91 and Isaiah 53 and 52 and other chapters clearly state that the Messiah will be lifted up and honored and protected from death and harm.
As to the burial, again, you're forcing a certain meaning without giving any regard to the other meanings of the same word. Yes, Jesus was never actually burried! He was placed temporarily in a tomb according to your New Testament, which contradicts Psalm 91 and Isaiah 52, and ironically also Isaiah 53. But regardless, I don't think this point is that relevant. Defining what burial is, and whether or not placing Jesus in the tomb is considered burial is irrelevant here. The main point is whether or not he actually was crucified and whether or not he actually died.
He wrote:
5 - In Isaiah 53:10-11, GOD Almighty will prolong Jesus' life and Jesus will live to even see his offspring (his children)! And Christ will see the Light and be satisfied after the suffering of his soul. The suffering of his soul here is referring to the overwhelming fear that Jesus had and the countless cries and Prayers that he made to Allah Almighty to save him. Psalm 91 further speaks clearly on this. Also, Jesus' life was never made long or extended. He only lived for 33 years, so we're told in the gospels, and he certainly never married any woman nor had any child from any woman. Yet, Isaiah 53:10 clearly says that he will live and he will have and see his children.
Here you go again shooting yourself in the other foot. Psalm 91 says that he will not be harmed, Isaiah 53 says he will be harmed. WHAT WILL IT BE???? And then, if that wasn’t embarrassing enough, you go on to make the following mistakes:
1. You were the one that claim others mistranslate verses. Verse 10 doesn’t say that the servant will see HIS seed (zero) but that he would see seed (zera). It says nothing about the seed being that of the servant.
2. Just as in other places the word “zera” can be metaphorical and not referring to physical offspring of the subject. Such as Psalm 22:31 where YHWH is the subject, yet no one will say that the seed is His. And in Isaiah 57:4 where falsehood is the subject, yet no one will say that the seed is the physical product of falsehood.
3. If you had any regard for the context of the verse, you would see that the prolonging of his days is AFTER HE DIED, which clearly points to a resurrection from the dead. So this isn’t talking about a person that would live “happily ever after” and become old. This is talking about a person living after he had died.
So I repeat that your objection point 5 is moot!
My response:
Jesus' suffering was through his grieve with maybe some minor bruises, kicks, punches and slashes, if any! There is no contradiction here. Psalm 91 clearly promises that Jesus will cry out to GOD Almighty for help, and GOD Almighty WILL send down the Angels to protect him from death and harm. "Harm" here could mean permanent or fatal harming that is too damaging.
Also, the "will" here shows that Psalm 91 is about prophecies that will happen and will be fulfilled. And according to Islam, yes, Jesus was lifted up and saved as I demonstrated above.
As to Jesus seeing "seed", whether they are his children or not, the point about prolonging his life remains, and it proves that he will not die at all.
And as to the prolonging his life is after he dies, this is a perfect example of the type of hog wash and absurdities that Christians invent and call faith and theology. All of your points had been based upon speculations and ridiculous absurdities. My refutations to you, on the other hand, are based on solid proofs that prove that Jesus was never prophesied to actually die. It just talked about him facing death, but never actually to die.
He wrote:
6 - In Isaiah 53:12, we are told that Jesus' life or soul will be poured unto death. To me, given the Islamic position about Christ never got crucified, and given the symbolic speech in Isaiah 53 chapter that most of it conflicts with what really took place with Christ in the gospels, and given the fact that many early writings in Palestine and elsewhere stated clearly that Jesus never got crucified such as in the Apocalypse of Peter and other ancient texts, then my interpretation of this verse about Jesus' life being poured unto death means to me that Jesus' life will overpower death! This is indisputably proven in Psalm 91 where it states that not only Jesus will not get crucified, but GOD Almighty will also hear his cries and will send down the Angels to PROTECT HIM and SAVE HIM. And Psalm 91 also says that Christ will call upon GOD Almighty and GOD Almighty will HEAR him and HONOR him. Christ would not have been honored if he have died the humiliating death of the cross. And certainly, he would not have been "saved" either by the Angels.
Oh my, where to start:
1. There was no Palestine in the first century, the land was Israel. Palestine was not invented until well into the second century.
2. The Apocalypse of Peter is NOT an early authentic text, it is a later apocryphal book!
3. When properly understood, Isaiah 53 ONLY makes sense when applied to the description of the Messiah in the Gospels
4. You erroneously start with the a-chronological position that is the lens of the Quran and then look at what the text of Scripture allows for. It never even occurs to you that the Quran is a false book to begin with and that you have to look at how IT relates to the previous revelations and NOT the other way around.
5. Your understanding of the servant overpowering death is a correct one. But not as you put it. The chapter speaks of the rejection of the servant, his suffering, his death and his resurrection, which is how he conquers death! But you don’t allow that clear reading because of your illogical position that you have to look at what the Quran allows for and adjust the reading of the text of Isaiah to that.
6. You still haven’t shown us why we should even entertain the thought that Psalm 91 is specifically about Yeshua or even generally Messianic at all. I have challenged you about that reading to prove your point. You haven’t done so to this day. If Psalm is really “indisputably” about the Messiah, please provide the evidence to stop this despute.
7. You wrote: “Christ would not have been honored if he have died the humiliating death of the cross. And certainly, he would not have been "saved" either by the Angels”. Which is exactly why your reading is flawed. You, again, start with the illogical position that your reading of Psalm 91 is correct (without ANYTHING that remotely looks like evidence that it is), and then judge the Gospels’ claims about the Messiah based on your flawed understanding of ONE unambiguously non-Messianic Psalm.
8. As for Christ not being honoured if he died. What greater honour is there to be falsely accused of wrongdoing, then put to death by your accusers and then completely vindicated by God through resurrection and exaltation above the heavens? If you have an answer to that, I’m eager to see it.
9. You completely miss the purpose for all this suffering of the servant. The verse says: “because he bared his soul unto death, and was numbered with the transgressors; yet he bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors”. Question: What did he intercede for? How did he bare the sins of many? WHY did he bare the sins of many? Who were the “many” and the transgressors? How did he intercede for the transgressors? This verse sums it all up perfectly: Through the suffering and the death of the Righteous Servant, the sins of many transgressors will be interceded for. But, of course, you will not allow for this clear reading, because the Quran doesn’t allow you to go there.
Your point 6 is moot!
My response:
1- The Philistines, and the people of Palestine, existed long before Moses and his followers ever migrated to Palestine. But this is a seperate topic altogether and is irrelevant to us here.
2- I've already proven in the article that the Apocalypse of Peter existed and was very popular among early Christians.
3- That's just your opinion and biase.
4- Another blasphemous and worthless opinion from you.
5- "Your understanding of the servant overpowering death is a correct one. But not as you put it." Thank you for openly admitting that my interpretation is correct and is quite possible! I already demonstrated why my interpretation is the right one above. But thank you for demonstrating how confusing and ridiculous your Bible's use of the words.
6 through 9- I already covered all of this in the article above. But in regards to Jesus interceding for the transgressors, it could be as little as a simple request or prayer for them. Did not Jesus, in the New Testament, pray to GOD Almighty and say: "Father forgive them for they know not"?
As to Jesus bearing the sins of many, it is referring to him being burdened by the sins and the wickedness of his people. This is why the second half of the sentence says "and he made intercession for the wicked," because he loved them so much that he wanted to seek a second chance for them with GOD Almighty. He carried their sins for them before GOD Almighty to seek intercession for them. This is what the verse is exactly saying.
Remember that Jesus was sentenced to death! This is why we see references to death and life in Isaiah 53.
But the main point is that YOU CAN NOT establish that he actually died!
Please visit:
Evidence from the Greek NT suggesting that "Jesus Barabbas" not "Jesus of Nazareth" is the one who got crucified!
Jesus Barabbas and Jesus the Nazorean.
The early Disciples' writings declare that Jesus never got crucified!
He wrote:
It then seems to me that Muslims will turn facts into fables to keep the truth claims of the Quran alive. And they will subsequently turn fables into facts to keep the Quran from being falsified.
Conclusion: Osama, your article on Isaiah 53 is grossly erroneous, contradictory, disordered, incoherent, childishly written, poorly edited and a scholarly disaster. In other words, all that work was a total waste of time. It didn’t take any effort from my part to dismantle your silly accusations of mistranslations. Take it off and give it another go.
Nakdimon
My response:
I invite you and the reader to visit: The Overwhelming Scientific Miracles of the Noble Quran to see how our Holy Book is indeed a Divine and True Miracle from GOD Almighty, and is His True and Living Word. You are terrified from Psalm 91 and the interpretations that I gave above about Isaiah 53. Isaiah 52 also says clearly that he will be raised and lifted. You know well that if we establish that Psalm 91 is about Jesus Christ, then this will be the end of Christianity! As I mentioned above:
In the New Testament, Psalm 91 is directly linked to Jesus Christ, in the New Testament, by Jesus Christ himself, while Isaiah 53 isn't linked to Jesus by anyone. Psalm 91 said many Prophecies, and they are listed above in this article. Satan, in the New Testament, even tried to use Psalm 91 to tempt Jesus into testing GOD Almighty to try to kill himself by throwing himself off of the canyon or mountain to see if GOD Almighty will be True to His Word and Promise and send down the Angels to lift Jesus up from death and harm as precisely mentioned in Psalm 91. Psalm 91 further declares that Christ will call upon GOD Almighty for help to protect him from death, and GOD Almighty will honor him and protect him from death.
By the way, Psalm 91 says that GOD Almighty will not even let Jesus strike his foot against a rock from harm. This is a symbolic speech that means that GOD Almighty will not let Jesus get hurt at all. Satan tried to fool Jesus by trying to have Jesus test GOD Almighty or force GOD Almighty into executing this Promise by trying to jump off the mountain to see if GOD Almighty will truly send down the Angels to lift Jesus up or not.
Now certainly, the Prophecy wasn't speaking about Jesus jumping off of a mountain. It was again a symbolic speech that meant that GOD Almighty will protect Jesus from death all the way.
Was Psalm 91 for a limited time only?
Some argued that Psalm 91 could've been only till the time before crucifixion, and that after that, it no longer applies. This is false and is refuted in Psalm 91 itself once again, because Psalm 91 says clearly that the servant will call upon GOD Almighty in trouble, and GOD Almighty will save him from death! GOD Almighty will honor him and protect him, and will not allow for ANY HARM to come near him. The only time Jesus called upon GOD Almighty to save his life, in the New Testament, was during the time of crucifixion.
Again, Isaiah 53 is no where linked to Jesus Christ in the New Testament. It is Psalm 91 that is clearly linked. Not only that, but Isaiah 53 has deliberate mistranslations and misinterpretations in it as I demonstrated above.
(b)- Rebuttal from the New Testament:Many Christians have already attempted to directly refute this article by presenting several verses from the Bible's New Testament that say that Jesus:
- Was crucified.
- Died on the cross for our sins.
- Was raised from the dead.
My response:
My simple answer to them is that they have missed the entire point of this article. If one could prove with ample and indisputable proofs, from the Bible's Old Testament, that GOD Almighty regarding the foretold Messiah:
- Will hear his cries (Psalm 91:15) and will save him (Psalm 91:3).
- He will cover him with His Protection (Psalm 91:4).
- Christ will then not have any fear in him (Psalm 91:5).
- Christ will then observe with his own eyes the punishment of the crucified ones (Psalm 91:8).
- No harm (this includes crucifixion!) or disaster will even come near Christ (Psalm 91:10....this even contradicts him getting beaten up before crucifixion).
- GOD Almighty will send down the Angels to protect him and lift him (Psalm 91:11-12, 14, Isaiah 52:13). Not even his foot will strike the ground from his enemies pushing, grappling and punishment.
- Christ's call will be HEARD, and he will be delivered and honored (Psalm 91:15, Isaiah 52:13). No way would these verses be valid if Christ got crucified.
- His life will be prolonged (extended) and he will live to even see his offspring (Isaiah 53:10 and Psalm 91:16, which by the way contradict Jesus never got married and had children. In Islam's Noble Quran's 13:38, however, it is quite possible that Jesus Christ had wives and children).
- His life will overpower death (Isaiah 53:12).
- "Death" in Isaiah 53:9 is proven to be symbolic using the Hebrew Lexicon and several English translations, and it never meant a literal death.
then one is clearly left with overwhelming proofs that prove that most of the New Testament is false, especially when we know that the Bible's own theologians admit that its books and gospels had all been:
- Written by mysterious men.
- Written by an unknown number of men.
- Written in unknown places.
- Written in unknown dates.
- Paul never even met Jesus Christ in person while the latter was on earth. It is falsely claimed that Jesus appeared to Paul while Paul was on his way to Damascus after the "crucifixion" (Acts 9:2-4. Note: Paul's name used to be Saul. Yet, Paul admittedly wasn't even sure whether the Holy Spirit was inspirning him or not).
- None of the disciples, even in the false writings attributed to them, ever claimed that their writings were inspired or Divine. Not only that, but we even ironically see that:
- Luke for instance, wrote his "gospel" for the sake of another person and not GOD Almighty. See below for details.
- The disciples even fought with each others [1] [2].
- We read about direct invitations to dinner and other occasions between the disciples in the "books" [1].
- According to the commentaries below, all of the books of the bible were altered and corrupted.
- The Bible's own theologians even admit that the bible contains "fictions", its original manuscripts "had been lost", and contains "fairy tails and fables".
And, it is also an indisputable fact that the Bible:
- Is filled with ample contradictions, man's alterations, corruption, and false scientific absurdities.
- Is written in third-party narrations, which is why we find in all of the gospels' titles "This gospel according to....", and countless verses that speak about the disciples and about their activities in third-party narrations [1] [2] [3] [4], which proves that the books and gospels were certainly not written by them.
- This also means that much gossips and exaggerations and fabrications were made up and inserted into the books and gospels. So even if some people back then thought that Jesus was crucified, they in reality never actually saw it. It could very well be that they've only heard about it from a neighboring town and believed it. There are certainly in the books and gospels:
- Too much gossips.
- Too wide of date gaps by the decades [1] [2] [3] [4] between when the supposed event took place and when it was actually written, by hand, in the corrupt gospels.
- Too many unknown people wrote the stories.
- Too many Prophecies in the Old Testament that promise that Jesus Christ, the Messiah, will be saved from the crucifixion.
- Too many mistranslations and desperate misinterpretations in Isaiah 53 and elsewhere.
- This also means that the books and gospels were definitely not inspired by GOD Almighty. Paul even admits that he had his delusions and doubts.
So now based on what objective grounds should we reject the claim about the Bible's New Testament's accounts being mostly false and fabricated by men? And again, as I mentioned in the conclusion section, I strongly recommend visiting the following links:
- The Overwhelming Scientific Miracles in the Holy Quran.
- What is Islam?
- The blessed Jesus in Islam.
- Answering Trinity.
- Allah is GOD Almighty's Holy Name in the Bible's original Manuscripts that were discovered - centuries before Islam.
I also want to end this rebuttal with the following verses from the Holy Quran, and the Bible's Old and New Testaments:
"Say: He is God, the One and Only; God, the Eternal, Absolute; He begetteth not, nor is He begotten; And there is none like unto Him. (The Noble Quran, 112:1-4)"
"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 6:4)"
"The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one. (From the NIV Bible, Mark 12:29)"
""Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good–except God alone." (From the NIV Bible, Mark 10:18)"
"God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill? (From the NIV Bible, Numbers 23:19)"
Indeed, Jesus Christ, the man, is only a Messenger from Allah Almighty, and he was never crucified.
May Allah Almighty enable you to see the Light and the Truth of Islam. And may Allah Almighty send His Peace, Mercy and Blessings upon our beloved and blessed Prophet, Teacher and Role Model, Muhammad. Ameen.
last 20 posts
22.04.2010, 02:51
The Crucifixion and Resurrection were never prophesied in the Bible's Old Testament.
Linear Mode
